Question bank
Project Management Professional
42 Project Management Professional questions with the correct answer and a written explanation, organised across 3 exam domains.
- 42 questions
- 3 domains
- Foundation level
certilumQuestion index
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Business Environment
11 questions in this domain
- Question 1Interactive
Review the following snippet. Which benefit concept does it illustrate?
- AKey Performance Indicators (KPIs)
- BBenefits Governance
- CBenefits Lifecycle TrackingCorrect answer
- DBenefits Realization Management Framework
Why this is the answer
The code shows milestones for benefit reviews at predefined points, which is Benefits Lifecycle Tracking.
- Question 2Interactive
Read the code snippet. Which aspect of benefits management does it represent?
- ABenefits Governance
- BBenefits RegisterCorrect answer
- CKey Performance Indicator
- DBenefits Lifecycle
Why this is the answer
The code contains a list of benefits with descriptions, owners, and target dates, which is a Benefits Register.
- Question 3Interactive
Examine the code. Which benefit measurement concept does it illustrate?
- ABaseline measurementCorrect answer
- BBenefits forecast
- CRisk-adjusted benefit
- DNet present value
Why this is the answer
The code compares current KPI value to a target baseline, illustrating baseline measurement.
- Question 4Interactive
Review the code. Which organizational change model step does it describe?
- ACreate a vision for change
- BForm a powerful coalition
- CCreate a sense of urgencyCorrect answer
- DAnchor changes in corporate culture
Why this is the answer
The code describes communicating why change is needed and the risks of not changing, which is 'Create urgency'.
- Question 5Interactive
Examine the code. Which external factor category is represented?
- APolitical
- BEconomic
- CTechnologicalCorrect answer
- DLegal
Why this is the answer
The code describes a technological disruption (AI) that affects the project, so it is Technological.
- Question 6Multiple Select
Which two are examples of external business factors that can affect a project?
- AEconomic inflation rateCorrect answer
- BProject team morale
- CCompetitor new product launchCorrect answer
- DInternal quality standards
Why this is the answer
Inflation and competitor actions are external; team morale and quality standards are internal.
- Question 7Interactive
Review the code. Which change management element does it illustrate?
- AStakeholder resistance analysis
- BChange readiness assessmentCorrect answer
- CChange control board decision
- DBenefits realization check
Why this is the answer
The code lists questions to evaluate stakeholder readiness for change, which is a readiness assessment.
- Question 8Single Choice
What is the difference between Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) and Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)?
- AEEFs are internal, OPAs are external
- BEEFs cannot be controlled by the project, OPAs can be tailoredCorrect answer
- CEEFs are updated by the project manager, OPAs are fixed
- DEEFs are only legal factors, OPAs are all other factors
Why this is the answer
EEFs are conditions outside the project's control; OPAs are internal assets the team can adapt.
- Question 9Multiple Select
Which two are components of the ADKAR change model?
- AAwarenessCorrect answer
- BDesireCorrect answer
- CUnfreeze
- DVision
Why this is the answer
ADKAR includes Awareness and Desire; 'Unfreeze' is from Lewin, 'Vision' from Kotter.
- Question 10Single Choice
What is the purpose of aligning a project to organizational strategy?
- ATo ensure the project finishes on time and within budget
- BTo ensure project outcomes contribute to long-term business goalsCorrect answer
- CTo reduce the number of stakeholders involved
- DTo minimize changes to the project scope
Why this is the answer
Strategic alignment ensures the project's outcomes support the organization's long-term goals and create value.
- Question 11Multiple Select
Which two factors are part of organizational culture that affect project management?
- ARisk tolerance levelsCorrect answer
- BCommunication style preferencesCorrect answer
- CProject charter templates
- DResource breakdown structure
Why this is the answer
Risk tolerance and communication style are cultural factors; templates and RBS are process assets.
People
14 questions in this domain
- Question 12Interactive
Review the RACI matrix below. Which role is responsible for the task 'Create risk register'? (Refer to the code block.)
- AProject ManagerCorrect answer
- BTeam Member
- CSponsor
- DStakeholder
Why this is the answer
In the RACI matrix, the 'R' (Responsible) for 'Create risk register' is the Project Manager. The 'A' (Accountable) is also the Project Manager in this simplified version.
- Question 13Interactive
Read the conflict resolution steps and identify the missing step number. (Refer to the code block.)
- AGather information
- BFacilitate discussionCorrect answer
- CIdentify the conflict
- DImplement and verify
Why this is the answer
The standard conflict resolution process includes: 1) Identify & acknowledge, 2) Gather information, 3) Define the issue, 4) Facilitate discussion, 5) Select resolution, 6) Implement & verify. The missing step is 'Facilitate discussion' (step 4).
- Question 14Interactive
The code block shows a feedback mechanism. Which step is essential to close the communication loop? (Refer to the code.)
- AEncode the message
- BSelect medium and channel
- CAcknowledge and provide feedbackCorrect answer
- DMonitor and adapt
Why this is the answer
Feedback is the final step in the communication process to confirm understanding. Encode, select medium, transmit, receive, and acknowledge/feedback are all part of the cycle. Monitor/adapt is after.
- Question 15Interactive
The code block lists five conflict resolution modes. Which mode is most appropriate when immediate action is required for a critical issue?
- ACompetingCorrect answer
- BCollaborating
- CCompromising
- DAvoiding
Why this is the answer
Competing (forcing) is used for urgent, critical decisions where time is short and the issue is vital. Collaborating takes too long; compromising yields suboptimal outcomes.
- Question 16Interactive
The code block shows a scenario. Which source of conflict is illustrated?
- AResource allocation
- BSchedule prioritiesCorrect answer
- CTechnical opinions
- DPersonality differences
Why this is the answer
The team member argues for more time to test, a schedule priority conflict. Resource allocation is about people/equipment; technical opinions are about methods; personality differences are interpersonal.
- Question 17Multiple Select
Which two are outputs of the Manage Communications process? (Select two.)
- AProject communicationsCorrect answer
- BCommunications Management Plan
- CLessons learned documentation updates
- DIssue log updatesCorrect answer
Why this is the answer
Manage Communications outputs include project communications (emails, reports) and updates to the issue log, risk register, etc. The Communications Management Plan is created in Planning; lessons learned documentation updates are from Monitor Communications.
- Question 18Interactive
The code block contains a list of stakeholder roles in a RACI matrix. Who is accountable (A) for the task 'Approve project charter'?
- AProject Manager
- BSponsorCorrect answer
- CTeam Lead
- DCustomer
Why this is the answer
In a typical RACI, the sponsor is accountable (A) for approving the project charter. The project manager may be responsible (R) for drafting it.
- Question 19Single Choice
During a retrospective, a team member says: 'We need more recognition for our work.' According to Maslow, which level of need is being expressed?
- APhysiological
- BSafety
- CEsteemCorrect answer
- DSelf-actualization
Why this is the answer
Esteem needs include recognition, respect, and status. Physiological are basic survival; safety is security; self-actualization is reaching full potential.
- Question 20Multiple Select
Which two practices help a project manager build influence without formal authority? (Select two.)
- ADemonstrating expertise in the domainCorrect answer
- BIssuing direct orders to the team
- CBuilding relationships through regular check-insCorrect answer
- DEscalating all disagreements to the sponsor
Why this is the answer
Expert power (demonstrating competence) and referent power (building relationships) are personal powers effective without formal authority. Direct orders and constant escalation weaken influence.
- Question 21Interactive
The code block shows three communication methods. In a scenario where urgent action is needed and confirmation is required immediately, which method should be used?
- APush communication
- BPull communication
- CInteractive communicationCorrect answer
- DNone of the above
Why this is the answer
Interactive communication (e.g., phone call, video meeting) allows immediate feedback and confirmation, making it suitable for urgent matters. Push and pull are one-way.
- Question 22Single Choice
What is the difference between a team charter and a project charter?
- ATeam charter defines how the team works; project charter authorizes the project.Correct answer
- BTeam charter is created by the PM alone; project charter is created by the sponsor.
- CTeam charter includes the budget; project charter includes the schedule.
- DBoth charters are identical but used at different phases.
Why this is the answer
The project charter officially initiates the project and gives authority to the PM. The team charter is developed by the team to set internal working norms.
- Question 23Multiple Select
Which two actions are part of the Monitor Communications process? (Select two.)
- AConducting a stakeholder satisfaction surveyCorrect answer
- BUpdating the communications management plan
- CReviewing communication metrics and feedbackCorrect answer
- DDistributing project status reports
Why this is the answer
Monitor Communications involves measuring effectiveness (e.g., surveys, metrics). Distributing reports is Manage Communications (Executing). Updating the plan is Planning.
- Question 24Interactive
The code block lists team development stages. A team has just resolved a major conflict and started to cooperate more. Which stage are they entering?
- AForming
- BStorming
- CNormingCorrect answer
- DPerforming
Why this is the answer
After Storming (conflict), the team enters Norming where they develop cohesion and agree on norms. Performing is when they are efficient; Adjourning is disbanding.
- Question 25Single Choice
In which conflict resolution mode does the project manager try to find a middle ground where each party gives up something?
- ACollaborating
- BCompromisingCorrect answer
- CCompeting
- DAccommodating
Why this is the answer
Compromising seeks a middle ground, partially satisfying both parties. Collaborating aims for full satisfaction; competing forces one side; accommodating yields to the other.
Process
17 questions in this domain
- Question 26Single Choice
What is the primary purpose of executing project work within constraints?
- ATo achieve project objectives while balancing scope, schedule, cost, and other constraintsCorrect answer
- BTo maximize resource usage regardless of cost
- CTo complete all tasks as quickly as possible
- DTo ensure all team members work overtime
Why this is the answer
Executing project work within constraints involves leading and performing work defined in the project management plan while navigating boundaries such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, risk, and stakeholder expectations. The correct answer reflects this balancing act, while distractors focus on extreme or incorrect approaches.
- Question 27Multiple Select
Which of the following are considered key outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process? (Select two)
- AWork performance dataCorrect answer
- BApproved change requests
- CIssue log updates
- DDeliverablesCorrect answer
Why this is the answer
The Direct and Manage Project Work process produces work performance data and deliverables. Approved change requests are inputs, not outputs; issue log updates are part of monitoring and controlling. The correct two outputs are work performance data and deliverables.
- Question 28Interactive
Given the following code snippet that represents a project management principle, which concept does it illustrate?
- APreventive action
- BCorrective actionCorrect answer
- CDefect repair
- DRisk acceptance
Why this is the answer
The code shows monitoring performance against a baseline and taking action to bring it back in line. This is a corrective action because it addresses an existing deviation. Preventive actions are taken before deviation occurs.
- Question 29Single Choice
What is the difference between work performance data and work performance information?
- AData is raw, unprocessed measurements; information is data analyzed with contextCorrect answer
- BData is collected after information is analyzed
- CInformation is always in graphical form
- DData and information are the same thing
Why this is the answer
Work performance data is raw observations (e.g., hours worked), while work performance information is data that has been analyzed and given context (e.g., cost variance). The distractors confuse the order or nature.
- Question 30Multiple Select
Which two factors are considered Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) that influence how project work is executed?
- AOrganizational cultureCorrect answer
- BTemplates and lessons learned
- CMarket conditionsCorrect answer
- DProject management software
Why this is the answer
EEFs are conditions not under the team's control, such as organizational culture and market conditions. Templates and lessons learned are Organizational Process Assets (OPAs). Project management software can be either, but usually it's considered a tool, not an EEF.
- Question 31Interactive
Examine the code snippet. Which type of cost does it represent in the Cost of Quality (COQ)?
- APrevention costCorrect answer
- BAppraisal cost
- CInternal failure cost
- DExternal failure cost
Why this is the answer
The code shows training team members, which is a prevention cost aimed at avoiding defects. Prevention costs are incurred to ensure quality before work is done. Appraisal costs involve inspection; failure costs occur after defects are found.
- Question 32Single Choice
What is the primary purpose of quality assurance (QA) in project management?
- ATo ensure processes are followed and improve themCorrect answer
- BTo inspect deliverables and find defects
- CTo create the quality management plan
- DTo measure product quality against standards
Why this is the answer
Quality assurance is process-focused and proactive; it audits processes to ensure they are correctly applied and suggests improvements. Inspection of deliverables is quality control, not assurance. Planning is part of quality planning.
- Question 33Multiple Select
Which two tools are part of the Seven Basic Quality Tools commonly used in quality control?
- AControl chartCorrect answer
- BCritical path method
- CPareto diagramCorrect answer
- DEarned value analysis
Why this is the answer
Control charts and Pareto diagrams are among the Seven Basic Quality Tools. Critical path method is a scheduling tool; earned value analysis is for cost and schedule performance. The seven tools also include cause-and-effect diagrams, flowcharts, check sheets, histograms, and scatter diagrams.
- Question 34Interactive
The following SQL query is used to retrieve data for a quality metric. What type of quality metric is being measured?
- ADefect densityCorrect answer
- BCustomer satisfaction
- CSchedule variance
- DCost performance index
Why this is the answer
The query counts defects per module divided by size (e.g., lines of code), which is defect density. Defect density is a common quality metric. The distractors are not directly calculated by this query.
- Question 35Single Choice
What is the integrated baseline in project management?
- AThe approved scope, schedule, and cost baselines managed togetherCorrect answer
- BThe risk management plan
- CThe communication plan
- DThe project charter
Why this is the answer
The integrated baseline is the combination of scope, schedule, and cost baselines that are formally approved and used as a reference for performance measurement. Other plans or documents are not considered the integrated baseline.
- Question 36Multiple Select
Which two are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
- AChange requests that are approved or rejected
- BProject management plan updatesCorrect answer
- CWork performance data
- DChange log updatesCorrect answer
Why this is the answer
The outputs of Perform Integrated Change Control include approved change requests, project management plan updates, and change log updates. Work performance data is an input. Change requests are processed, not output; the decision is output but the answer is specific to updates.
- Question 37Interactive
The code snippet shows a decision point in the integrated change control process. What does the variable 'approved' represent?
- AThat the change request has been approved by the CCBCorrect answer
- BThat the change request has been documented
- CThat the project manager decided to implement the change
- DThat the impact analysis is complete
Why this is the answer
In integrated change control, 'approved' typically means the change request has been officially approved by the Change Control Board (or authorized decision-maker). Documentation and impact analysis precede approval. The project manager may be part of the CCB but does not unilaterally approve.
- Question 38Single Choice
What is the primary purpose of a risk audit?
- ATo assess the effectiveness of risk responses and the risk management processCorrect answer
- BTo identify new risks
- CTo rank risks by probability and impact
- DTo close the risk register
Why this is the answer
A risk audit is a formal examination of risk responses and the risk management process to determine their effectiveness. Identifying new risks is done through risk identification; ranking is part of risk analysis; closing the register occurs when risks are resolved.
- Question 39Multiple Select
Which two are examples of opportunities response strategies?
- AExploitCorrect answer
- BMitigate
- CTransfer
- DEnhanceCorrect answer
Why this is the answer
Opportunity response strategies include exploit (make it happen), enhance (increase probability/impact), share (allocate ownership), and accept. Mitigate and transfer are for threats. The correct options are exploit and enhance.
- Question 40Interactive
The code represents a risk response action. What type of risk response is being implemented?
- ATransfer
- BAvoid
- CMitigateCorrect answer
- DAccept
Why this is the answer
The code includes adding a backup server to reduce the impact of a server failure. This reduces the impact of the threat, which is mitigation. Avoid would eliminate the threat (e.g., not using that server); transfer would shift risk to a third party; accept would take no proactive action.
- Question 41Single Choice
What is the definition of a residual risk?
- AA risk that remains after response implementationCorrect answer
- BA risk that arises from implementing a response
- CA risk that has not yet been identified
- DA risk that was accepted without action
Why this is the answer
Residual risk is the risk that remains after implementing a risk response. Secondary risk is a new risk arising from the response. The other options are incorrect. The exam distinguishes between residual and secondary risks.
- Question 42Multiple Select
Which two factors are typically considered in a make-or-buy analysis?
- ACore competencies of the organizationCorrect answer
- BThe weather forecast
- CCost comparison between internal production and external purchaseCorrect answer
- DThe project sponsor's preference
Why this is the answer
Make-or-buy analysis considers business factors such as core competencies and cost-effectiveness. Weather is irrelevant unless it affects operations; sponsor preference is a soft factor but not a primary analysis criterion.
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